Question 1 
Here are the main points for an informative speech about the anatomy of the human ear.
I. The outer ear includes the ear flap and the ear canal.
II. The middle ear includes the eardrum and three tiny, interconnected bones.
III. The inner ear includes the cochlea, the semicircular canals, and the auditory nerve.
These main points are arranged in ______ order.
 spatial 
descending 
chronological 
ascending 
topical 

Question 2 
When the general purpose of your speech is to _____, you act primarily as a teacher or lecturer.
 inform 
convince 
entertain 
persuade 
convert 

Question 3 
According to a recent survey, which of the following is the most important in shaping a hiring decision?
 grade-point average 
extra curricular activities 
ability to communicate effectively 
work experience 

Question 1 
“Are you married, divorced, or single?”
lawful 
unlawful 

Question 2 
Which of the following does your textbook recommend as a way to deal with nervousness in your speeches?
Visualize yourself giving a successful speech. 
Concentrate on communicating with the audience, rather than on your nerves. 
Choose a topic you care about and prepare thoroughly for the speech. 
all of the above 

Question 3 
“To persuade my audience to take a class that will teach them CPR” is a specific purpose statement for a persuasive speech on a question of 
fact. 
attitude. 
value. 
policy. 
opinion. 

Question 1 
Audience-centeredness means that public speaker should
keep the audience foremost in mind throughout the speechmaking process. 
use any means necessary to gain the assent of the audience. 
avoid choosing topics that are controversial. 
all of the above 

Question 2 
According to your textbook, how well a speech is organized likely will influence
how clearly the audience understands the speech. 
how the audience views the competence of the speaker. 
how confident the speaker feels about his or her delivery. 
all of the above. 

Question 3 
A carefully prepared and rehearsed speech that is presented from a brief set of notes is called a(n) ________speech.
extemporaneous 
spontaneous 
transitional 
contemporaneous 
informative 

Question 1 
“What personal qualities do you have that you think would be helpful in working with the teams within our organization?”
lawful 
unlawful 

Question 2 
Julia is listening to her meteorology professor explain how to interpret images from Doppler radar. Because Julia’s goal is to understand the information being presented, she is engaged in __________ listening. 
attentive 
comprehensive 
appreciative 
empathic 
critical 

Question 3 
When your textbook describes public speaking as a form of empowerment, it means that public speaking is
a way to manipulate people. 
a way to make a difference in something we care about. 
a way to make everyone see things through our frame of reference. 
a way to demonstrate how clever we are. 
a way to make bad ideas seem good. 

Question 1 
Which organizational method is used in a speech with the following main points?
I. Many citizens are victimized every year by incompetent lawyers.
II. A bill requiring lawyers to stand for recertification every 10 years will do much to help solve the problem.
legal 
topical 
chronological 
problem-solution 
analytical 

Question 2 
If you have prepared a speech, but do not plan to use the same exact wording during presentation, you will be speaking
impromptu 
extemporaneously 
from memory 
from a manuscript 

Question 3 
Which organizational pattern is especially effective for persuasive speeches that seek immediate action by listeners?
comparative advantages order 
Monroe‘s motivated sequence 
problem-solution order 
reflective-thinking sequence 
psychological process order 

1. Most digestion takes place in the
A. liver.
B. stomach.
C. small intestine.
D. mouth.

2. The middle portion of the small intestine is called the
A. jejunum.
B. ileum.
C. duodenum.
D. colon.

3. A chemical messenger secreted into the blood by a gland is called a(n)
A. hormone.
B. enzyme.
C. digestive juice.
D. discharge.

1. An adult following the MyPyramid food guide needs how many cups from the vegetable group each day?
A. Two and a quarter
B. Two and one-half
C. Four and one-third
D. One and a half

2. When various fuels in the body rise or fall, hormones are released into the bloodstream by
A. glands.
B. tissues.
C. organ systems.
D. organs.

3. On a package label, you read the following ingredients—sugar, corn syrup, flour, yeast, etc. Which is the most abundant in this product?
A. Corn syrup
B. Yeast
C. Additives
D. Sugar

1. Children should consume _______ cups of calcium-rich food like milk daily.
A. four
B. seven
C. five
D. two

2. A hypersensitivity reaction of the immune system to a particular food is called
A. celiac disease.
B. food allergy.
C. contact allergy.
D. food intolerance.

3. The science that studies food and how it nourishes the body and influences health is known as
A. biology.
B. digestion.
C. physiology.
D. nutrition.

1. A gastric ulcer is found in the
A. abdominal cavity.
B. esophagus.
C. stomach.
D. duodenum.

2. The Recommended Dietary Allowance represents the average daily nutrient intake
A. and takes into consideration the person’s physical activity.
B. that meets the requirement of half the healthy individuals in a particular life stage or gender group.
C. predicted to maintain energy balance in healthy adults.
D. that meet the nutrient requirements of 97–98 percent of healthy individuals in a particular life state or gender group.

3. The process of taking the products of digestion through the wall of the intestine is called
A. elimination.
B. absorption.
C. salivating.
D. gastroanalysis.

1. A food that has a large amount of nutrients relative to its calorie content is called
A. energetic.
B. caloric dense.
C. nutrient dense.
D. recommended daily allowance.

2. The smallest unit of matter that exhibits all the properties of living things is the
A. molecule.
B. cell.
C. mitochondria.
D. atom.

3. Usually made of proteins, _______ induce chemical changes in other substances to speed up body processes.
A. glands
B. carbohydrates
C. enzymes
D. tissues

1. which of your responsibilities as a caregiver depends largely on where you live?
A. Managing staff
B. Meeting licensing requirements
C. Meeting children’s needs
D. Communicating with parents 

2. Workloads in a child care facility should be
A. heavier for older employees.
B. related to the salary paid.
C. distributed as evenly as possible.
D. heavier for new employees. 

3. Maria Montessori first began working with _______ children.
A. very smart
B. wealthy
C. ill
D. retarded 

1. School-age children who are left to supervise themselves after school while their parents work are often referred to as _______ children.
A. privileged
B. abandoned
C. latchkey
D. caring 

2. Which one of the following activities is not directly connected with providing a safe and healthy environment?
A. Washing hands after diapering children
B. Recording health evaluations of each child
C. Recording day-to-day achievements of each child
D. Providing a staffed arrival and departure area 

3. As a caregiver, being a good neighbor means
A. cleaning up litter in the neighbor’s yard.
B. keeping your facility in good condition.
C. caring for your neighbor’s child.
D. loaning things to your neighbor. 

1. Which one of the following would require the most frequent verbal or written communications with parents?
A. An explanation of the facility’s goals
B. An explanation of the facility’s program
C. Referral to special services
D. Achievements of and changes in a child 

2. Research shows that the ______ is an important factor in a child’s development.
A. financial status of the child’s family
B. quality of parenting and care the child receives from adults
C. type of preschool the child attends
D. social status of the child’s family 

3. Two important activities will help to form your child care program design. One activity is studying your program materials and the other is
A. observing child care facilities.
B. reading additional books on child care.
C. volunteering to help with kindergarten classes.
D. babysitting friends’ or relatives’ children. 

1. A benefit for parents that a quality child care program offers is
A. increasing their guilt about leaving their child.
B. increasing their socioeconomic status.
C. giving parents a chance to network with other parents.
D. having their child become more attached to the caregiver than to them. 

2. Which of these is considered a benefit of a quality child care program?
A. The child develops a closer relationship with the mother.
B. The child becomes more dependent on adults outside of the family.
C. The child learns to get along with adults and children outside of the nuclear family.
D. The child becomes more attached to the outside caregiver than to the immediate family. 

3. A day care curriculum refers to the
A. place where day care takes place.
B. activities planned for the children.
C. hours the facility is open.
D. supervision of staff. 

1. Jean Piaget was a
A. pediatrician
B. child care provider.
C. developmental psychologist.
D. factory worker. 

2. Which one of the following types of child care does not occur in a home setting with home activities?
A. Family day care
B. In-home care
C. Home vis

3. School-age children who are left to supervise themselves after school while their parents work are often referred to as _______ children.
A. privileged
B. abandoned
C. latchkey
D. caring 

Question 1 
Three purposes of a career research interview are to 
Answer get references, get referrals, write your resume. 
be remembered, prepare a resume, get references 
read, remember, write. 
conduct research, be remembered, get referrals. 

Question 2 
To avoid plagiarism when using information from an Internet document in your speech, your textbook recommends that you keep a record of
Answer the title of the document. 
the author or organization responsible for the document. 
the date on which you accessed the document. 
a and b only. 

Question 3 
Communication based on a speaker’s body and voice, rather than on the use of words, is called
Answer implicit communication 
non-verbal communication 
unintentional communication 
instinctive communication 
physical communication. 

Question:

You are thinking of adding one of two investments to your already well-diversified portfolio.
Security A Security B
Expected return = 12% Expected return = 12%
Standard deviation of returns = 11.0% Standard deviation of returns = 20.1%
Beta = 2.0 Beta = 0.9
If you are a very risk-averse investor, which security is the better choice? (1)
a. Security A.
b. Security B.
c. Either security would be acceptable.
d. Cannot be determined with the information given.

Question 1 
People spend more time __________ than in any other communication activity.
speaking 
writing 
reading 
listening 
discussing 

Question 2 
Malcolm said “um” or “uh” every time he got to a new PowerPoint slide in his informative speech. His instructor told Malcolm to reduce the number of _________ in his next speech.
 fillers 
vocal inflections 
intonations 
vocalized pauses 
inflections 

Question 3 
According to your textbook, a common mistake students make when developing their first speech is
 using PowerPoint improperly. 
trying to cover too much material. 
not doing enough library research. 
a and c only. 

Question 1 
Survey results indicate that the leading factor shaping interviewers’ initial impressions of the candidates is 
 the appearance of the resume. 
the clothing the candidate wears to the interview. 
the candidate’s eye contact during the rapport stage of the interview. 
the firmness of the candidate’s handshake. 

Question 2 
Which of the following is mentioned in your textbook as a responsibility of every member in a small group?
 develop hidden agendas 
reach solutions swiftly 
call for a vote on major decisions 
all of the above 
none of the above 

Question 3 
According to your textbook, when citing sources during a speech, a speaker should usually identify the 
 book, magazine, newspaper, or Web document being cited. 
author or sponsoring organization responsible for the document. 
qualifications of the author with regard to the topic. 

Question 1 
Which of the following is an instance of informative speaking?
 a teacher praising parents for contributing to the school carnival 
a teacher arguing that phonics is a successful method for teaching reading 
a teacher explaining the requirements for an assignment 
all of the above 

Question 2 
How do the following main points for a speech about the achievements of Ida Wells-Barnett violate the guidelines presented in your textbook for organizing main points?
I. As a teacher, Wells-Barnett spoke out against inferior school facilities for African-American children.
II. As a journalist, Well-Barnett campaigned against lynching.
III. In the early 20th century, Wells-Barnett expanded her activities.
Answer The main points should have been arranged in causal order. 
The main points don’t each deal with a separate aspect of the topic. 
The main points don’t divide the topic consistently. 
all of the above. 

Question 3 
The _____ is a one-sentence statement that sums up or encapsulates the major ideas of a speech.
specific purpose 
central idea 
introduction 
general purpose 
outline 

1. An investor owns 50 shares of a stock worth $15.30 per share. Which of the following is the amount of money the investor would receive if he cashed in half of the shares of this stock?

2. 0.3 + 0.06 Simplify the expression above. Which of the following is correct?

3. At a used car dealership, the first determinant in the price of a car is the model, followed by the mileage and age of the car. Which of following is the dependent variable?

1. 4x(3x + 8y)-7y(5x-1) Simplify the expression above. Which of the following is correct?

2. 2 5/8+ 1/3 Simplify the expression above. Which of the following is correct?

3. A house painter can finish a house in 6 hours. His partner can finish the same house in 12 hours. Which of the following is the number of hours it would have taken them to finish painting the house if they had worked together?

1. A rectangle has a perimeter of 24 units. If the width is 4 units, which of the following is the length?

2. A temperature gauge reads 95° F. Which of the following is the correct conversion to degrees Celsius? (Note: ° C = 5/ g[° F -32])

3. Beginning balance: $1,451.50 Date Credits Debits 4/01 $455.10 4/01 $21.00 4/02 $89.15 4/05 $15.45 4/05 $50.00 4/07 $18.20 Which of the following is the balance in this account at the end of the day on April 7?

1. The top of a dresser is 33/ feet from an 8-foot ceiling. Which of the following is the height of the dresser in feet?

2. A company that made $2.4 million in profits the previous year is on pace to make $3 million in the current year. If the company makes this figure, which of the following is the percent increase in profits?

3. 0.0101 , 0.0100, 0.0110,0.0011 Using the numbers above, which of the following sequences lists the numbers from least to greatest?

1. Which of the following percents is equivalent to 0.66?

2. 4(x-3) =5(x + 1) Solve the equation above for x. Which of the following is correct?

3. A tire company manufactures 50 tires an hour with its current staff. The company can make 10 extra tires per hour for every extra worker it hires. Which of the following equations represents this relationship mathematically, with x being the number of extra workers hired and y being the number of tires produced?

use the following information for the following two questions.

Risen Company, a dealer in machinery and equipment, leased equipment to Foran, Inc., on July 1, 2008. The lease is appropriately accounted for as a sale by Risen and as a purchase by Foran.  The lease is for a 10-year period (the useful life of the asset) expiring June 30, 2018. The first of 10 equal annual payments of $621,000 was made on July 1, 2008. Risen had purchased the equipment for $3,900,000 on January 1, 2008, and established a list selling price of $5,400,000 on the equipment. Assume that the present value at July 1, 2008, of the rent payments over the lease term discounted at 8% (the appropriate interest rate) was $4,500,000.

1. Assuming that Foran, Inc. uses straight-line depreciation, what is the amount of depreciation and interest expense that Foran should record for the year ended December 31, 2008?

a. $225,000 and $155,160

b. $225,000 and $180,000

c. $270,000 and $155,160

d. $270,000 and $180,000                           

2. What is the amount of profit on the sale and the amount of interest income that Risen should record for the year ended December 31, 2008?

a. $0 and $155,160

b. $600,000 and $155,160

c. $600,000 and $180,000

d. $900,000 and $360,000

3. On December 31, 2008, Dodd Corporation leased a plane from  Aero Company for an eight-year period expiring December 30, 2016. Equal annual payments of $150,000 are due on December 31 of each year, beginning with December 31, 2008. The lease is properly classified as a capital lease on Dodd’s books. The present value at December 31, 2008 of the eight lease payments over the lease term discounted at 10% is $880,264. Assuming the first payment is made on time, the amount that should be reported by Dodd Corporation as the lease liability on its December 31, 2008 balance sheet is

a. $880,264.

b. $818,290.

c. $792,238.

d. $730,264.

use the following information for the following five questions.

Bohl Co. purchases land and constructs a service station and car wash for a total of $360,000. At January 2, 2007, when construction is completed, the facility and land on which it was constructed are sold to a major oil company for $400,000 and immediately leased from the oil company by Bohl. Fair value of the land at time of the sale was $40,000. The lease is a 10-year, noncancelable lease. Bohl uses straight-line depreciation for its other various business holdings.  The economic life of the facility is 15 years with zero salvage value. Title to the facility and land will pass to Bohl at termination of the lease. A partial amortization schedule for this lease is as follows:

                               Payments                             Interest                            Amortization         Balance            

               Jan. 2, 2007                                                     $400,000.00

               Dec. 31, 2007     $65,098.13          $40,000.00          $25,098.13          374,901.87

               Dec. 31, 2008     65,098.13            37,490.19            27,607.94            347,293.93

               Dec. 31, 2009     65,098.13            34,729.39            30,368.74            316,925.19

1. From the viewpoint of the lessor, what type of lease is involved above?

a. Sales-type lease

b. Sale-leaseback

c. Direct-financing lease

d. Operating lease

2. What is the discount rate implicit in the amortization schedule presented above?

a. 12%

b. 10%

c. 8%

d. 6%

3. The total lease-related expenses recognized by the lessee during 2008 is which of the following?  (Rounded to the nearest dollar.)

a. $64,000

b. $65,098

c. $73,490

d. $61,490

4. What is the amount of the lessee’s liability to the lessor after the December 31, 2009 payment?  (Rounded to the nearest dollar.)

a. $400,000

b. $374,902

c. $347,294

d. $316,925

5. The total lease-related income recognized by the lessee during 2008 is which of the following?

a. $ -0-

b. $2,667

c. $4,000

d. $40,000

1. The term used for bonds that are unsecured as to principal is
a. junk bonds.
b. debenture bonds.
c. indebenture bonds.
d. callable bonds

2. If bonds are issued initially at a premium and the effective-interest method of amortization is used, interest expense in the earlier years will be
a. greater than if the straight-line method were used.
b. greater than the amount of the interest payments.
C the same as if the straight-line method were used.
d. less than if the straight-line method were used.

3. If bonds are issued between interest dates, the entry on the books of the issuing corporation could include a
a. debit to Interest Payable.
b. credit to Interest Receivable.
c. credit to Interest Expense.
d. credit to Unearned Interest.

Use the following information for the following two questions:

Cox Co. issued $100,000 of ten-year, 10% bonds that pay interest semiannually.  The bonds are sold to yield 8%.

1. One step in calculating the issue price of the bonds is to multiply the principal by the table value for

a. 10 periods and 10% from the present value of 1 table.

b. 20 periods and 5% from the present value of 1 table.

c. 10 periods and 8% from the present value of 1 table.

d. 20 periods and 4% from the present value of 1 table.

2. Another step in calculating the issue price of the bonds is to

a. multiply $10,000 by the table value for 10 periods and 10% from the present value of an annuity table.

b. multiply $10,000 by the table value for 20 periods and 5% from the present value of an annuity table.

c. multiply $10,000 by the table value for 20 periods and 4% from the present value of an annuity table.

d. none of these.

3. Treasury bonds should be shown on the balance sheet as

a. an asset.

b. a deduction from bonds payable issued to arrive at net bonds payable and outstanding.

c. a reduction of stockholders’ equity.

d. both an asset and a liability.

1. Discount on Notes Payable is charged to interest expense

a. equally over the life of the note.

b. only in the year the note is issued.

c. using the effective-interest method.

d. only in the year the note matures.

2. Norton Co. was organized on January 2, 2007, with 500,000 authorized shares of $10 par value common stock.  During 2007, Norton had the following capital transactions:

January 5—issued 375,000 shares at $14 per share.

July 27—purchased 25,000 shares at $11 per share.

November 25—sold 15,000 shares of treasury stock at $13 per share.

Norton used the cost method to record the purchase of the treasury shares. What would be the balance in the Paid-in Capital from Treasury Stock account at December 31, 2007?

a. $0.

b. $15,000.

c. $30,000.

d. $45,000.

3. Palmer Corp. owned 20,000 shares of Dixon Corp. purchased in 2003 for $240,000. On December 15, 2006, Palmer declared a property dividend of all of its Dixon Corp. shares on the basis of one share of Dixon for every 10 shares of Palmer common stock held by its stockholders. The property dividend was distributed on January 15, 2007. On the declaration date, the aggregate market price of the Dixon shares held by Palmer was $400,000. The entry to record the declaration of the dividend would include a debit to Retained Earnings of

a. $0.

b. $160,000.

c. $240,000.

d. $400,000.

You’ve studied a variety of debt instruments. Bonds are unique in several significant ways, and their differences impact the reporting. What are the characteristics of bonds that make them unique? What does it mean when a bond is issued at a premium or a discount? In your response, discuss the difference between the effective and stated interest rate. Contentiously, I need this completed asap.

1. The court’s decision in U.S. v. Peterson
A  was in agreement with the common law self defense rule of “retreat to the wall.”
B strictly adhered to the majority rule that a defendant may stand his ground and use deadly force whenever it seems reasonably necessary to save himself.
C rejected the “castle” doctrine in its entirety.
D relied on the principle that the “castle” doctrine may only be invoked by one who is without fault in bringing the conflict on.
 

2. he court in Bishop v. State decided that
A A property owner is justified in taking a life with a mechanical device if the dwelling has previously been broken into.
B Taking a life with a mechanical device is every property owner’s right to protect his property.
C Allowing persons to employ deadly mechanical devices imperils the lives of children.
D Mechanical devices are fair because they are without judgment or discretion.
 

3. In order for one to be entitled to use force in self
defense against an assailant, it is necessary that the assailant’s force be
A unlawful
B unreasonable
C excessive
D deadly

1. Which of the following is correct regarding the amount of force one may use in self defense?
A One may always use deadly force in self defense if the assailant is larger than the defendant.
B The defendant must have a reasonable belief in the necessity of using force to prevent harm to himself.
C The defendant’s belief in the need to use force may not be a mistaken belief.
D The defendant may only use deadly force against an armed assailant.
 

2. In which of the following cases did the court decide that as to the defendant’s right to use force in self
defense there is no reason to make a distinction between cases in which the assailant is an intruder in the defendant’s home and those where the assailant is a co
habitant of the home?
A State v. Bonano
B People v. Townes
C Commonwealth v. Cataldo
D State v. Thomas
 

3. A majority of jurisdictions hold that:
A A defender need not retreat when he reasonably believes the assailant will kill or inflict serious bodily harm to the defender.
B A defender must retreat even in his home or business if he can do so safely.
C A defender never needs to retreat.
D A defender must retreat if the assailant does not have a weapon.
 

4. Which of the following is incorrect regarding the defense of another?
A The defender must reasonably believe that the other is in immediate danger of unlawful bodily harm.
B The defender must stand in a personal relationship to the one in need of protection.
C The defender may not use more force than he reasonably believes necessary to relieve the risk of harm.
D The “alter ego” rule holds that the right to defend another is coextensive with the other’s right to defend himself.

1.            Determine whether the equation defines a function with independent variable x.  If it does, find the domain.  If it does not, find a value of x to which there corresponds more than one value of y.
x|y| = x + 9

2.            Use the graph of the function to estimate:

a.            f(2)        
b.            f(–4)      
c.            All x such that f(x) = 0

3.            For the following graph:

a.            Find the domain of f.      
b.            Find the range of f.
c.            Find the x-intercepts.
d.            Find the y-intercept.
e.            Find the intervals over which f is increasing.
f.            Find the intervals over which f is decreasing.
g.            Find the intervals over which f is constant.
h.            Find any points of discontinuity.

4.            Use the following to answer questions a-d:
f(x) = x2 + x and g(x) = x – 5
a.            Find h(x) = (f ◦ g)(x).
b.            State the domain of h(x) = (f ◦ g)(x).
c.            Find h(x) = (g ◦ f)(x).
d.            State the domain of h(x) = (g ◦ f)(x).

E4-2 The adjusted trial balance columns of the worksheet for Goode Company are as follows.

Instructions
Complete the worksheet.

E4-3 Worksheet data for Goode Company are presented in E4-2. No common stock was issued during April.

Instructions
Prepare an income statement, a retained earnings statement, and a classified balance sheet.
E4-4 Worksheet data for Goode Company are presented in E4-2.
Instructions

Instructions

(a) Journalize the closing entries at April 30

(b) Post the closing entries to Income Summary and Retained Earnings. Use T accounts.

(c) Prepare a post-closing trial balance at April 

1. Criminal laws:

2. When is precedent not followed?

3. When the music industry filed suit against the peer-to-peer file sharers on copyrighted music, it asked for both legal and equitable remedies. Which of the following is an equitable remedy?

1. Employers may be held responsible for sexual harassment even if the employer has not been made aware that the harassment has occurred.

True

False

2. Employers are vicariously liable for the sexual harassment of their employees.

True

False

3. The sole proprietor’s personal assets are subject to business creditor attachment.

True

False

1. Partners’ personal assets cannot be reached by partnership creditors.

True

False

2. Limited partners have liability limited to the amount of their contribution to the partnership.

True

False

3. The corporate veil can be pierced for inadequate capitalization.

True

False

1. Directors are personally liable for errors in business judgment.

True

False

2. Any shareholder can demand access to the corporate books and records.

True

False

3. It is fraud to form a corporation to avoid personal liability.

True

False

1. Corporations pay double taxes, on income and shareholders on dividends.

True

False

2. Close corporations are generally publicly traded.

True

False

3. Attempting to protect one’s personal asses by avoiding liability is a legitimate reason for choosing to create a corporation.

True

False

Question 1 
The world’s first large-scale nuclear power plant began operations in: 
A. 1947. 
B. 1957. 
C. 1967. 
D. 1977. 

Question 2 
Which of the following power technologies has the highest fuel (thermal) efficiency? 
A. Fuel cell 
B. Steam electric power plant 
C. Nuclear electric power 
D. Gas turbine electric power plant 

Question 3 
According to Michael Renner, the main objective of the war in Iraq is: 
A. to Liberate Iraq. 
B. to maintain a cheaper supply of oil. 
C. because President Bush wanted to punish President Saddam Hussain. 
D. for unidentified political advancements. 

1. According to individual ethical egoism one should 
A. Ignore the needs of others. 
B. Help others to help themselves. 
C. Do what is in one’s self interest. 
D. Do what makes one happy at the moment. 

2. Which of the following is not an example of ethical egoism? 
A. We should treat others well because we want to be treated well in return. 
B. We should treat others well so they will treat others well. 
C. We should work hard because a “job well done is its own reward.” 
D. We should work hard because doing so is a good model for our children. 

3. The ring of Gyges can best be described as which of the following? 
A. A ring of inheritance indicating royalty. 
B. A ring that represents a committed romance. 
C. A ring that cam make the wearer invisible. 
D. A geological formation in ancient Greece.

Question 1 
One advantage of hydroelectric power generation is: 
A. the production of high-level chemical waste but no greenhouse gases. 
B. very high efficiency converting water to electrical energy. 
C. a wide range of sites for plant construction. 
D. low construction costs. 

Question 2 
Which of the following is NOT a disadvantage of hydroelectric power generation? 
A. Dam construction causes loss of land suitable for agriculture. 
B. Dam construction prevents upstream migration of fish. 
C. Downstream water flow becomes unpredictable and creates extreme conditions. 
D. Drought conditions can affect power production. 

Question 3 
The biggest roadblock for electric cars is: 
A. storing the electricity needed to run them. 
B. the inefficiency of the electric motor. 
C. the lack of usable prototypes. 
D. low-volume production. 

Question 1 
According to the textbook, Iceland’s proposed hydrogen economy is driven by all of the following EXCEPT: 
A. recent developments in hydrogen fuel cells. 
B. the movement to combat global climate change. 
C. concerns over the price and supply of oil. 
D. ethnic pride. 

Question 2 
All of the following processes are used in biomass energy technology EXCEPT: 
A. radiation. 
B. combustion. 
C. gasification. 
D. pyrolysis. 

Question 3 
The technology that converts solar radiation into electricity is called __________ energy. 
A. fossil fuel 
B. hydroelectric 
C. nuclear 
D. photo-voltaic 

1. Strong ethical relativism holds that
A. There is no objective right and wrong.
B. Right and wrong are not really knowable.
C. Some actions are more right than others.
D. All actions are equally moral.

2. Which is not a reason for supporting ethical relativism
A. Moral uncertainty.
B. Diversity of moral views.
C. Situational differences.
D. Social cohesion.

3. According to psychological egoism people
A. Act in ways that are harmful to them. 
B. Often act against their own self interests. 
C. Act in the way they perceive to be best for them. 
D. Act out of deep subconscious needs. 

1. A company earned $1,500 in net income for October. Its net sales for October were $10,000. Its profit margin is: (Round your answers to the nearest percentage.) 
8,500 
15% 
667% 
150% 
2%

 
2. A company earned $2,500 in net income for October. Its net sales for October were $10,000. Its profit margin is: (Round your answers to the nearest percentage.) 
25% 
3% 
400%
250% 
7,500

3. A company purchased a new truck at a cost of $35,000 on July 1, 2009. The truck is estimated to have a useful life of 6 years and a salvage value of $4,000. The company uses the straight-line method of depreciation. How much depreciation expense will be recorded for the truck for the year ended December 31, 2009? 
$5,166 
$5,833 
$17,833 
$2,917 

1. A company purchased a new truck at a cost of $48,000 on July 1, 2009. The truck is estimated to have a useful life of 6 years and a salvage value of $5,000. The company uses the straight-line method of depreciation. How much depreciation expense will be recorded for the truck for the year ended December 31, 2009? 
$7,166 
$4,000 
$8,000 
$3,583 
$24,417
 

2. The balance in Tee Tax Services’ office supplies account on February 1 and February 28 was $1,400 and $410, respectively. If the office supplies expense for the month is $1,900, what amount of office supplies was purchased during February? 
$1,335 
$910 
$1,490 
$3,300 
$2,160

3. On May 1, 2009 Continental Advertising Company received $4,800 from Julie Bee for advertising services to be completed April 30, 2010. The Cash receipt was recorded as unearned fees and at December 31, 2009, $3,200 of the fees had been earned. The adjusting entry on December 31 Year 1 should include: 
A credit to Unearned Fees for $1,600. 
A debit to Earned Fees for $1,600.
 A debit to Unearned Fees for $1,600. 
A debit to Earned Fees for $3,200. 
A credit to Earned Fees for $3,200.

1. A company purchased new computers at a cost of $14,800 on September 30, 2010. The computers are estimated to have a useful life of 4 years and a salvage value of $2,500. The company uses the straight-line method of depreciation. How much depreciation expense will be recorded for the computers for the year ended December 31, 2010? (Round your answer to the nearest dollar amount.) 
$1,025  
$256 

$894
$3,075 
$769

2. Prior to recording adjusting entries, the Office Supplies account had a $300 debit balance. A physical count of the supplies showed $134 of unused supplies available. The required adjusting entry is: 
Debit Office Supplies $300 and credit Office Supplies Expense $300. 
Debit Office Supplies Expense $166 and credit Office Supplies $166. 
Debit Office Supplies $134 and credit Office Supplies Expense $134. 
Debit Office Supplies $166 and credit Office Supplies Expense $166. 
Debit Office Supplies $134 and credit Supplies Expense $166.

3. On April 1, 2009, a company paid the $1,750 premium on a three-year insurance policy with benefits beginning on that date. What will be the insurance expense on the annual income statement for the year ended December 31, 2009? (Round your answers to the nearest percentage.) 
$656 
$438 
$583 
$1,750 
$1,313

1. On June 30, 2009, Apricot Co. paid $7,000 cash for management services to be performed over a two-year period. Apricot follows a policy of recording all prepaid expenses to asset accounts at the time of cash payment. On June 30, 2009 Apricot should record: 
A credit to an expense for $7,000. 
A debit to a prepaid expense for $7,000. 
A debit to Cash for $7,000. 
A credit to a prepaid expense for $7,000. 
A debit to an expense for $7,000.

2. On May 1, 2009, Amazon Advertising Company received $3,500 from Jacob Mathews for advertising services to be completed April 30, 2010. The Cash receipt was recorded as unearned fees. The adjusting entry on December 31, 2010 should include: 
a debit to Unearned Fees for $1,167. 
a debit to Earned Fees for $2,333. 
a debit to Earned Fees for $3,500. 
a credit Earned Fees for $2,333. 
a credit to Unearned Fees for $1,167.

3. A company made no adjusting entry for accrued and unpaid employee wages of $28,000 on December 31. This oversight would: 
Understate assets by $28,000. 
Understate net income by $28,000. 
Overstate net income by $28,000. 
Have no effect on net income. 
Overstate assets by $28,000.

1. The balance in Tee Tax Services’ office supplies account on February 1 and February 28 was $2,300 and $385, respectively. If the office supplies expense for the month is $3,000, what amount of office supplies was purchased during February? 
$2,335 
$5,300 
$1,510 
$1,085 
$2,615

2. On January 1 a company purchased a five-year insurance policy for $1,300 with coverage starting immediately. If the purchase was recorded in the Prepaid Insurance account, and the company records adjustments only at year-end, the adjusting entry at the end of the first year is: 
Debit Prepaid Insurance, $542; credit Insurance Expense, $542.
 Debit Prepaid Insurance, $1,300; credit Cash, $1,300. 
Debit Insurance Expense, $260; credit Prepaid Insurance, $542. 
Debit Prepaid Insurance, $260; credit Insurance Expense, $260. 
Debit Insurance Expense, $260; credit Prepaid Insurance, $260.

3. On April 30, 2009, a three-year insurance policy was purchased for $13,000 with coverage to begin immediately. What is the amount of insurance expense that would appear on the company’s income statement for the year ended December 31, 2009? 
$361 
$13,000 
$4,333 
$9,000 
$2,889

1. In a suit between Delta Data Company and Eagle Information, Inc., the court applies the doctrine of stare decisis. This requires the court to find cases that, compared to the case before it, have
a. entirely different facts.
b. no facts, only conclusions of law.
c. precisely identical facts.
d. the same or similar facts.

2. Standard Corporation terminates Tom, who sues on the basis of age discrimination. To succeed under the Age Discrimination in Employment Act, Tom must show that at the time of the discharge, he was
a. forty or older.
b. forty or younger.
c. replaced with someone forty or older.
d. replaced with someone forty or younger.

3. Which of the following is FALSE about contracts pursuant to the Uniform Commercial Code?
a. A UCC contract must have a clear and precise price term initially in the contract for it to be valid
b. A merchant’s firm offer can be valid and enforceable even without the payment of consideration.
c. Additional terms in an acceptance will as a general rule not render the acceptance invalid.
d. The UCC requires as a general rule a writing for contracts for the sale of goods $500 or more in price..

1. Which of the following is TRUE about real property?
a. In a joint tenancy with a right of survivorship, when one joint tenant dies his or her interest in the property passes automatically to the surviving joint tenant, who is typically the surviving spouse.
b. The real estate contract is the legal instrument that transfers title to real property.
c. “Quitclaim deeds” are illegal since no warranties of title are made by the grantor.
d. Real property cannot be owned concurrently in the U.S. since the government will not know exactly who is going to pay the taxes on the property.

2. Which of the following constitutes legal consideration?
A promise based upon a moral obligation.
A promise based upon past consideration.
A promise based upon a preexisting duty.

A promise based upon a change in duties and payments.

3. Workforce planning focuses on firm-level responses to ___ business issues over multiple time horizons.

1. Bill makes an offer to Ann. If Bill dies before Ann can reply, the offer
a. remains open.
b. remains open until Ann learns of Bill’s death.
c. remains open until Ann replies.
d. terminate immediately.

2. An output contract is typically
a. Illusory
b. Unconscionable
c. Voidable
d. None of the above

3. Under the U.S. constitutional system, fundamental constitutional doctrines that seek to prevent an abuse of power by the federal government are:
a. The Separation of Powers doctrine
b. The division of the federal government into three branches or divisions
c. The system of “checks and balances”
d. All of the above.

1. Which of the following is likely to be a breach of a corporate officer’s/director’s duty of care?
a. Failing to anticipate a drop in the consumer demand of the company’s product.
b. Failing to make a reasonable investigation of relevant facts.
c. Failing to predict the startup of a new competitor.
d. Failing to foresee a severe rise in the interest rate.

2. Which of the following most likely is illegal discrimination pursuant to Title VII of the federal Civil Rights Act?
a. Not considering applicants for manufacturing sales positions because of their religious beliefs in incarnation.
b. Not hiring applicants for sales positions who are smokers of tobacco products.
c. Not hiring gay, lesbian, bisexual, or transgender employees.
d. Not hiring candidates whether male or female who are parents when extensive travel is involved with the position.

3. Athletic Goods, Inc. (AGI), agrees to sell sports equipment to Bob’s Sports Store. Before the time for performance, AGI clearly and firmly tells Bob that it will not deliver. This is
a. anticipatory repudiation.
b. perfect tender.

c. rejection of performance.
d. revocation of acceptance.

1. Which of the following is a reason to form a limited liability company rather than an S corporation?
a. There is no limit on the number of owners of a limited liability company whereas the number of shareholders of an S corporation is limited.
b. All owners of a limited liability company have limited liability, but not all owners of an S corporation have limited liability.
c. A limited liability company can be formed without formalities such as filing papers with the state whereas an S corporation requires papers to be filed with the state.
d. A limited liability company acts as a flow-through entity for income tax purposes, but an S corporation does not.

2. Which of the following statements is false?
a. To bring a legal action in the U.S. against an employer for intentional discrimination based on the Civil Rights Act, the employee must demonstrate that he or she is a member of a protected class.
b. The Family and Medical Leave Act provides up to 15 weeks of paid leave for U.S. workers who experience the birth of a child or who undergo a serious illness.
c. The National Labor Relations Board decides whether a bargaining unit is “appropriate” for a union election in the U.S. by primarily determining if a community of interest exists among the workers in the potential unit.
d. Requiring equal pay for equal work for different sexes is part of U.S. labor and discrimination law.

3. Which of the following best describes horizontal division of markets?
a. An agreement by competitors that each will only serve part of the market for their products.
b. Any action in which a company distributes some products in one geographic area and other products in another geographic area.
c. Any action in which a company charges different prices for a product depending on the geographic market.
d. The granting by a company of exclusive geographic territory to salespersons.

1. Internet Services, Inc. (ISI), is an Internet service provider. ISI does not create, but disseminates, a defamatory statement by Jill, its customer, about Ron. Liability for the remark may be imposed on 

a. ISI and Jill.
b. ISI or Jill, but not both.
c. ISI only.
d. Jill only.

2. Jill offers to sell her car to Kelly, stating that the offer will stay open for thirty days. Jill may revoke the offer 

a. before Kelly accepts the offer.
b. before thirty days have expired, whether or not Kelly has accepted the offer.
c. only after Kelly accepts the offer.
d. only after thirty days.

3. Donna applies to Eagle Corporation for an administrative assistant’s job, which requires certain typing skills. Donna cannot type but tells Eagle that she is willing to learn. Eagle does not hire Donna, who later sues. To successfully defend against the suit under Title VII, it would be best for Eagle to show that 

a. being a member of the majority is a BFOQ.
b. Donna was not willing to learn to type.
c. Eagle has a valid business necessity defense.
d. Eagle’s work force reflects the same percentage of mem¬bers of a protected class that characterizes qualified individuals in the local labor market.

1. (TCO 8) Cash-value life insurance is more expensive than term insurance because: (Points : 3)
it is usually sold to older people who have higher mortality rates.
higher rates of interest are earned on term policy investments.
whole life is subject to adverse selection.
the whole life contracts include both a protection element and a savings or investment element.
none of the above.

2. (TCO 8) All of the following are factors used in computing life insurance rates except: (Points : 3)
a rate of interest.
morbidity.

mortality.
expenses of the insurer.
none of the above.

3. (TCO 8) Under the conversion privilege of a convertible term life insurance policy: (Points : 3)
the insured may convert to another term policy at expiration.
the insured may convert to another term policy prior to expiration.
the insured may convert to a whole life policy prior to expiration.
the insured may convert to a whole life policy after expiration.
all of the above.

1. (TCO 8) The risk of income loss resulting from premature death: (Points : 3)
is universal, since death is inevitable.
has approximately the same probability as the risk from superannuation.
may or may not exist for a particular life, depending on the circumstances.
is more important than the risk of disability, since the probability of loss is higher.
none of the above.

2. (TCO 8) A misstatement of age by an applicant for life insurance: (Points : 3)
voids the policy if discovered during the contestability period.
makes the policy voidable at the option of the company if discovered during the contestability period.
has no effect on the policy unless it is discovered during the contestability period.
changes the amount of insurance to the amount that the premium paid would have purchased at the correct age.
none of the above.

3. (TCO 8) Which of the following policies purchased at age 35 would provide the highest cash value at age 65? (Points : 3)

Whole life policy
Paid up at 65 life policy
Term insurance to age 65
Twenty-payment life policy
They would all have the same cash value at age 65.

1. David, the human resources director for Eagle Manufacturing Company, attempts to comply with the law in dealing with applicants and employees. One of the major challenges that David confronts is that the legality of an action is 

a. Absolute and unchanging
b. Based on social responsibility notions
c. Based on ethical standards
d. Not always clear.

2. Kitchen Appliances, Inc., markets a product that is capable of seriously injuring consumers who misuse the product in a foreseeable way. What statement best describes the company’s resulting duty to consumers? 
a. The company will owe a legal duty to consumers since it is an insurer against all harms caused by its products.
b. The company will not have any ethical duty to consumers if it contributes to charities in communities where some injured consumers live.
c. The impact of any decision on the firm’s profits supersedes any and every ethical duty to consumers.
d. None of the above.

3. Zapco is a small company of 14 employees that makes fireworks. The company contributes to local charities and sponsors a youth sports team. Federal safety regulations require that large firecrackers have two dividing walls inside, so that all their gunpowder does not explode at once. Zapco is unaware of the regulations, and includes only one dividing wall in each of its large firecrackers. Little Timmy lights a Zapco firecracker, and before he can throw it, it explodes and seriously injures him. At the trial, it is established that a second dividing wall would have prevented the harm. Zapco is best described as 

a. Not morally responsible since they are good corporate citizens in the local community

b. Not morally responsible since they were unaware of the regulations and they were just a small company
c. Not legally responsible because their company employs under 15 people and they were unaware of the regulations
d. None of the above.

4. Which of the following questions should be answered first in the process of ethical decision-making in business? 

a. Is the action profitable?
b. Is the action moral?
c. Is the action a socially responsible one?
d. Is the action good public relations?

1. (TCO 8) Which of the following policies purchased at age 35 would provide the highest cash value at age 65? (Points : 3)
Whole life policy
Paid up at 65 life policy
Term insurance to age 65
Twenty-payment life policy
They would all have the same cash value at age 65.

2. (TCO 8) Under the grace period clause used in life insurance: (Points : 3)
the policy is continued for 60 days after a premium due is in default.
the policy is continued for 30 days under the extended term option.
any premium in default will be deducted from the face amount of the policy if the insured should die during the period.
any premium in default will be waived if the insured should die during the period.
none of the above.

3. (TCO 8) A policy will be paid-up when: (Points : 3)
the face amount becomes payable.

only after a specified number of years.
when the policy reserve equals the present value of future benefits.
when the policy reserve minus future premiums equals the face of the policy.
none of the above.

1. One current trend in parenting is that women are

A. delaying childbearing.
B. placing careers over children.
C. much more frequently choosing to remain childless.
D. having children at a younger age.

2. According to Parsons, illness generally

A. is acceptable for men, but not women.
B. is functional.
C. threatens social stability.
D. is dysfunctional.

3. In all cultures the family has been assigned responsibility for each of the following, except

A. economic responsibility for dependents.
B. prohibition of premarital sexuality.
C. socialization of the young.
D. regulation of sexual behavior.

1. Which of the following best explains why poverty is associated with poorer health and lower life expectancy?
A. Poor people live in violent, crime-ridden neighborhoods.
B. Poor people are less likely to care about their health.
C. Most poor people are both unemployed and addicted to illegal substances.

D. Poor people can’t afford medical care.

2. According to your textbook, adolescents
A. experience a great deal of role strain.
B. are expected to make major contributions to society.
C. generally begin dating at around age 17.
D. will generally look back at the period as the best time of their lives.

3. Which statement is most consistent with Parson’s sick role concept?

A. People suffering illness should seek medical advice if they can afford it.
B. Employees suffering from a cold aren’t normally expected to show up for work.

C. As a rule, people aren’t held responsible for their illness or disease.
D. Husbands must always assume homemaking duties when their wife is ill.

1. Having compared their theoretical perspectives, you’re likely to recognize that _________ analysis most explicitly implies a negative critique of Christianity.

A. Durkheim’s
B. Weber’s
C. Marx’s

D. Stark’s

2. Which of the following is the definition of secularization?
A. The division of religious practices and beliefs into segments or sections
B. The process whereby a religious person becomes a fundamentalist
C. The process of transferring things, ideas, or events from the sacred to the profane

D. The process that religions go through to define what’s sacred and what’s profane

3. The most important social factor affecting mortality is

A. location of residence.
B. race.
C. genetics.
D. standard of living.

1. According to your textbook, marital happiness is negatively affected by

A. having the husband take an active role in child raising.
B. the presence of children.
C. the absence of children.
D. the romantic notion of “happily ever after.”

2. Polygamy, which permits a man to have multiple wives, is reported as the ideal form of marriage in many societies across the globe. In these societies,

A. there’s equality between men and women.
B. there’s tremendous social inequality between men.
C. there’s little social inequality of any kind.
D. women generally revolt due to jealousy.

3. At the micro level, sociologists of education are most likely to be interested in knowing about

A. the inadequacy of school budgets.
B. how the school experiences of working-class and middle-class students differ.
C. trends in adopting art and music course offerings across the country.
D. trends in SAT scores.

1. One function of the schools is cultural reproduction, which means

A. teaching art and music.
B. controlling young people and their sex lives.
C. transmitting culture from one generation to the next.
D. producing new knowledge.

2. The chief difference between a conflict and a structural-functional interpretation of American education is that
A. functionalists see no negative side-effects.
B. functionalists recognize dysfunctions.
C. conflict theorists don’t recognize that education benefits anybody.
D. functionalists are more positive about the reproduction of culture and society.

3. Regarding cults and sects, which statement is most accurate?

 

A. Cults are to religiosity as sects are to secularism.
B. In the long run, sects either vanish or become church denominations.
C. A sect is a religious organization that originated as a cult.
D. Scientologists adhere to beliefs that are similar to those of any other sect.

1. (TCO 4) With zone-based firewalls, which of the following is used to specify actions to be taken when traffic matches a criterion? (Points : 6)
Zones
Class maps
Policy maps
Zone pairs

2. (TCO 4) With zone-based firewalls, which of the following is used to define a unidirectional firewall policy between two areas with different security levels? (Points : 6)
Zones
Class maps
Policy maps
Zone pairs

3. (TCO 5) Which AAA server protocol offers support for ARAP and NETBEUI protocols as well as IP? (Points : 6)
CSACS
RADIUS
OpenACS
TACACS+

1. (TCO 5) Which AAA server protocol uses TCP to exchange information with the network access server (NAS)? (Points : 6)
CSACS
RADIUS
OpenACS
TACACS+

2. (TCO 6) The Cisco IOS command that will display all current IKE security associations (SAs) is _____.(Points : 6)
show crypto ipsec
show crypto isakmp
show crypto ipsec sa
show crypto isakmp sa
show crypto ike sa

3. (TCO 6) The Cisco IOS firewall crypto isakmp policy mode command that will set the isakmp security association lifetime is _____. (Points : 6)
lifetime {days}
lifetime {seconds}
set lifetime {days}
set lifetime {seconds}

1. (TCO 7) Which of the following is a signature type that IOS firewall IDS can detect as requiring the storage of state information? (Points : 6)
Atomic
Dynamic
Cyclical
Compound (composite)

2. (TCO 7) Why is a network using IDS only more vulnerable to atomic attacks? (Points : 6)
IDS must track three-way handshakes of established TCP connections.
IDS cannot track UDP sessions.
IDS permits malicious single packets into a network.
IDS is not stateful and therefore cannot track multiple packet attack streams.

3. (TCO 3) Which of the following switch commands will enable portfast on an interface? (Points : 6)
spanning-tree portfast enable 
spanning-tree portfast
spanning-tree portfast F0/20
spanning-tree portfast default

1. (TCO1) What is the true definition of telecommunications? (Points : 15)
Transfer of information
Transfer of data
The reliable movement of data over a distance
Sharing data by moving it over a distance

2. (TCO2) These group of PBX features are essential in the call traffic-processing duties of the PBX. It is also the group of applications that most resembles the services available to a POTS subscriber. What is this feature group called? (Points : 15)
Automatic Call Distribution
Management Information Systems
Interactive Voice Responses
Basic Call Handling

3. (TCO4) One feature of a PBX is the ability to include intelligence that upon a request for a long distance call determines the lowest cost route and uses that vendor, thus, minimizing its LD call expenditures. What it this feature? (Points : 15)
Automatic Call Distribution (ACD)
Management Information Systems (MIS)
Interactive Voice Response (IVR)
Least Cost Routing

1. (TCO7) This is the functional integration of various computer and telephone system elements that enables a number of call center applications such as screen pop-ups, intelligent routing, multimedia, or intelligent call forwarding of calls to the appropriate person. (Points : 15)
IVR
Bridging
ACD
CTI

2. (TCO11) In the OSI-7 Layer Protocol Stack, this layer is responsible for error-detection, recovery, and error correction. This layer is also responsible for resolving competing requests for a shared communication link and framing requirements for data packets. (Points : 15)
Networking
Presentation
Data Link
Transport

3. (TCO10) What are the two fundamental duties of softPBX? (Points  15)
Telnet and transcoding
Call Hold and Web Chat
Call signaling and voice transmission
Decoding and playback

1. (TCO9) What is the protocol that was developed by IETF as a way of signaling multiuser distributed telephony and messaging applications on an IP network? (Points : 15)

H.323
Serial Level Gateway Protocol
TCP
Session Initiation Protocol

2. (TCO9) What are the two processes that convert sound from the format which is heard (analog), into a format that VoIP uses to carry it (digital streams), and back again? (Points : 15)

Digital to packet (DTP) conversions
Application Service Provider (ASP) to multiplexing process
Business-to-Business (B2B) to Transport conversions
Digital to analog conversion (DAC) and analog to digital conversions

3. (TCO2) These group of PBX features are essential in the call traffic-processing duties of the PBX. It is also the group of applications that most resembles the services available to a POTS subscriber. What is this feature group called? (Points : 15)

Automatic Call Distribution
Management Information Systems
Interactive Voice Responses
Basic Call Handling

Question:

The interest rate on South Korean government securities with one-year maturity is 4 percent, and the expected inflation rate for the coming year is 2 percent. The interest rate on U.S. government securities with one-year maturity is 7 percent, and the expected rate of inflation in 5 percent. The current spot exchange rate for Korean won is $1= W 1,200. Forecast the spot exchange rate one year from today. Explain the logic of your answer.

Question:

Amazon and Barnes and Nobles Describe the m-commerce capabilities of each bookstore and how each conducts their m-commerce activities. What advantages and disadvantages does m-commerce provide for each bookseller?

Question:

In 2010, Kelly, who earns a salary of $200,000, invest for a 20% interest in a partnership not subject to the passive loss rule. Through the use of $800,000 of nonrecourse financing, the partnership acquires assets worth $1 million. Depreciation, inteest, and other deductions related to the activity produce a loss of $150,000, of which Kelly’s share is $30,000. In 2011, Kelly’s share of the loss from the partnership is $15,000. How much of the loss from the partnership can kelly deduct?

1. Your college is considering an investment of $6 million to add 10,000 seats to the campus football stadium. The athletic department forecasts that it can sell all these extra seats at each home game at a ticket price of $20 per seat, and the team plays six home games per year. If the school can borrow at an interest rate of 14 percent, should the school undertake this project? What would happen if the school expected a losing season and could sell tickets for only half of the 10,000 seats?

2. What would happen if the school expected a losing season and could sell tickets for only half of the 10,000 seats?

Question:

What impact would an increase in the nation’s money supply or the federal government’s budget deficit have on the real GDP and price levels in the macroeconomy? 
What phase of the business cycle might this create? Can you predict the future of the business cycle with any certainty?

Question;

(TCO 4) Savadyne, Inc. produces flash drives. The selling price is $8 per drive. The variable cost of production is $2.40 per unit and the fixed cost per month is $3,600.

(a) Calculate the contribution margin associated with each flash drive.
(b) In August, the company sold 200 more flash drives than planned. What is the expected effect on profit of selling the additional drives?
(c) Calculate the contribution margin ratio associated with one flash drive.
(d) In October, the company had sales that were $2,400 higher than planned. What is the expected effect on profit related to the additional sales?(Points : 25)

1. Friendships start to become more complex and psychologically based during the stage of Friendship as
A. Mutual Trust and Assistance.
B. Commitment.
C. Intimacy, Mutual Understanding, and Loyalty.
D. a Handy Playmate.

2. Which form of child maltreatment is most commonly reported?
A. Physical abuse
B. Neglect

C. Sexual abuse

D. Emotional abuse

3. Mr. and Mrs. Lopez are highly accepting and involved with their children. They’re warm, attentive, and sensitive to their needs. The Lopez’s are using a/an _______ childrearing
style.
A. authoritarian
B. uninvolved

C. permissive

D. authoritative

1. A decrease in competition and increased harmony are two positive outcomes of
A. traditional classrooms.
B. homogeneous grouping arrangements.
C. multigrade classrooms.
D. mainstreaming.

2. _______ are especially likely to profit from extracurricular pursuits that require them
to take on meaningful roles and responsibilities.
A. Overweight adolescents
B. Adolescents with physical limitations
C. Adolescents with academic, emotional, and social problems
D. Popular-prosocial adolescents

3. Research indicates that the link between family size and children’s IQ can be explained by the
A. Flynn effect.
B. strong trend for mothers lower in intelligence to give birth to more children.
C. strong trend for mothers higher in intelligence to give birth to more children.
D. growing use of birth-control techniques.

1. Compared with popular-aggressive children, rejected-aggressive children are
A. more socially skilled.
B. less antagonistic and more prosocial.
C. more often extremely antagonistic.
D. popular with younger peers.

2. Most of the 1,500 children who die from maltreatment each year
A. are under age five.
B. are adolescents.
C. leave siblings behind who remain with the abusive parents.
D. had been referred to the social-services system, but their case hadn’t yet been investigated.

3. Anxious, withdrawn children who _______ seem better equipped to withstand peer attacks.
A. take self-defense classes
B. learn to project a sense of false bravado
C. learn meditation techniques
D. who have a prosocial best friend

1. Sixteen-year-old Bonita strives to develop a sense of herself as a separate, self governing individual. Bonita is developing
A. maturation.
B. autonomy.

C. coregulation.

D. adolescence.

2. Which child probably watches TV most often?
A. Bonnie, from a low-SES family
B. Brynn, whose parents only watch the news
C. Brandi, who comes from a small family
D. Brenda, from a high-SES family

3. In dual-earner families, the father’s _______ is crucial to the emotional health of the mother.
A. earning potential
B. attitude toward career-oriented women
C. work schedule
D. willingness to share child-care responsibilities

1. In Mr. Yi’s classroom, students participate in a wide range of challenging activities with teachers and peers, with whom they jointly construct understandings. Mr. Yi most likely teaches in a _______ classroom.
A. philosophical
B. traditional

C. social-constructivist

D. Montessori

2. Sixteen-year-old Bonita strives to develop a sense of herself as a separate, selfgoverning individual. Bonita is developing
A. maturation.
B. autonomy.

C. coregulation.

D. adolescence.

3. All else constant, an increase in a firm’s cost of debt:
a) could be caused by an increase in the firm’s tax rate
b) will result in an increase in the firm’s cost of capital.
c) will lower the firm’s weighted average cost of capital.
d) will lower the firm’s cost of equity.
e) will increase the firm’s capital structure weight of debt.

1. Which of the following artists painted using a technique similar to that used by Jackson Pollock?
A. Piet Mondrian
B. Girogio di Chirico

C. Helen Frankenthaler

D. Georgia O’Keeffe

2. By the mid-1950s, which artistic movement was the most powerful force in Western art?
A. Neorealism
B. Minimalism

C. The new Surrealism

D. Abstract Expressionism

3. The vigorous brushstrokes and emotion-laden imagery in the paintings of Anselm Kiefer are reminiscent of the paintings of
A. Realism.
B. Superrealism.

C. Neoclassicism.

D. Expressionism.

1. Which of the following media is not typically associated with electronic art?
A. Video image
B. Computer image

C. Electronic sign

D. Laser collages

2. Which of these Postmodern artists is known for creating photographic self-portraits?
A. Cindy Sherman
B. Richard Diebenkorn

C. Kenny Scharf

D. Martin Puryear
 

3. The organization SITE, Sculpture in the Environment, was formed in 1970 for the purpose of
A. reviving the iconography of the nineteenth century.
B. finding sources of content in the present.
C. creating an art-for-art architectural movement.
D. promoting the acceptance of kinetic sculpture.

1. (TCO 1) What is the value of alpha[3] after the following code executes?
int alpha[6] = {0};
int j;
for(j = 4; j >= 0; j–)
{
alpha[j] = j + 5;
if (j % 2 == 0)a
alpha[j + 1] = alpha[j] + 3;
} (Points : 4)

5
8
9
10

2. (TCO 1) Suppose that the array alpha is to be declared as a formal parameter in a function heading. Which of the following about alpha is true? 
(i) You must specify the size of alpha in square brackets.
(ii) You cannot pass alpha by value. (Points : 4)

Only (i)
Only (ii)
Both (i) and (ii)
Neither of these

Question:

The amount of money requested by personal loan applicants at Audi-Bank follows a normal distribution with a mean of R 70 000.00 and a standard deviation of R 20 000.00. a loan applicant is received this morning. What is the probability :
a) The amount requested is R 80 000.00 or more?
b) The amount requested is between R 65 000.00 and R 80 000.00?
c) The amount requested is R 65 000.00 or more

Question 1 
Silvano is a successful entrepreneur but his company is not involved in any civic affairs or charitable activities in the local community. Silvano likely could be characterized as:
a) Guilty of legal nonfeasance and subject to prosecution.
b) Immoral pursuant to the Last Resort principle for not “lending a hand” in the community.
c) Immoral pursuant to Legal Positivism.
d) Socially irresponsible.

Question 2 
A business that undertakes charitable activities that benefit persons who are not connected to the business is most directly applying which value?
a) Moral minimum
b) Maximizing profit
c) Social responsibility
d) Legal.

Question 3 
As to the issue of whether a company should be a “socially responsible” one, the Ethical Egoists would likely say:
a) When in Rome, do as the Romans.
b) Justice is the will of the stronger.
c) Charity begins at home.
d) Save the whales.

Question 4 
The U.S. government bans the sale in the United States of Whirly-Wheel, a child’s toy, which the government deems dangerous. For this reason, it is most accurate to say that it is:
a) Illegal to sell the toy outside the United States
b) Illegal and unethical to sell the toy outside of the United States
c) Legal but possibly immoral to sell the toy outside of the United States
d) Socially responsible to sell the toy outside of the U.S. if the manufacturer’s shareholders benefit.

1. How do the following main points for a speech about the achievements of Ida Wells-Barnett violate the guidelines presented in your textbook for organizing main points?
I. As a teacher, Wells-Barnett spoke out against inferior school facilities for African-American children.
II. As a journalist, Well-Barnett campaigned against lynching.
III. In the early 20th century, Wells-Barnett expanded her activities. (Points : 2) 
The main points should have been arranged in causal order.
The main points don’t each deal with a separate aspect of the topic.
The main points don’t divide the topic consistently.
all of the above.

2. All of the following are basic objectives of a speech introduction except (Points : 2) 
Establish credibility and goodwill.
Support your main points.
Reveal the topic of the speech.
Preview the body of the speech
Get the audience’s attention and interest.

3. Which of the following is a correctly worded main point for a speech preparation outline? (Points : 2) 
Leadership.
What are the major types of leadership?
Two major types of leadership.
There are two major types of leadership.
Leadership: major types.

1. Which of the following elements is NOT suggested by the text as an effective method for contacting potential employers? (Points : 2) 
Send a unique cover letter along with your resume to each company you apply to.
Send resumes to every company in the area.
Develop a personal network.
Conduct background research

2. Survey results indicate that the leading factor shaping interviewers’ initial impressions of the candidates is (Points : 2) 
the appearance of the resume.

the clothing the candidate wears to the interview.
the candidate’s eye contact during the rapport stage of the interview.
the firmness of the candidate’s handshake.

3. Choose the best answer to the interview question, “Why should we hire you?” (Points : 2) 
“I understand from your website that your most popular product is Zanos. I’ve been using Zanos for three years now. I’ve shown several of my friends how effective it is, and now they’re buying it, too. With my knowledge of the product and my enthusiasm for it, I can be a sincere and valuable sales rep.”
“I really need the money.”
“I just completed my Associate Degree, and I’m ready to work.”
“I am a hard-working, motivate, people-person.”

1. When the general purpose of your speech is to _____, you act primarily as a teacher or lecturer. (Points : 2) 
inform
convince
entertain
persuade
convert